Q.1.

(i) Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the OMR Answer Sheet. (20 × 1 = 20)

(ii) Answers given anywhere else, other than OMR Answer Sheet, will not be considered.

 

1.

A voidable contract is one that:

(A) Is invalid from the beginning.
(B) Can be annulled at the option of one party.
(C) Is enforceable only by court order.
(D) None of these

2.

Arbitration is preferred over litigation because it is:

(A) Always faster and cheaper.
(B) Binding and often confidential.
(C) Governed strictly by state courts
(D) All of these

3.

A partnership firm can be registered with the:

(A) Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan
(B) Federal Board of Revenue
(C) Registrar of Firms
(D) None of these

4.

Force Majeure clauses excuse performance due to:

(A) Financial difficulties.
(B) Unforeseeable extraordinary events.
(C) Minor contractual breaches
(D) None of these

5.

Which of the following does not qualify as a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) Promissory note
(B) Bearer cheque
(C) Bill of Lading
(D) All of these

6.

In the context of the Companies Act, the audit committee of a company must be composed of:

(A) At least two independent directors.
(B) At least one independent director.
(C) The Chief Executive Officer and the Chief Financial Officer.
(D) None of these

7.

Under the Arbitration Act, 1940, the court may remit an award to the arbitrator for reconsideration under which of the following circumstances?

(A) When the award is indefinite or uncertain
(B) When the award contains an error removable without altering the decision
(C) When objections are “apparent on the face of the record”
(D) All of these

8.

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following prevents a person from becoming a Holder in Due Course?

(A) Receiving the instrument after maturity
(B) Receiving the instrument for consideration
(C) Taking the instrument without knowing any defect in title
(D) None of these

9.

What is the primary distinction between a ‘sale’ and an ‘agreement to sell’ under the Sales of Goods Act?

(A) A sale transfers ownership immediately, while an agreement to sell transfers ownership at a future time.
(B) A sale involves movable goods, while an agreement to sell involves immovable property.
(C) A sale requires registration, while an agreement to sell does not.
(D) None of these

10.

Under the Competition Act, 2010, which of the following actions is considered an “abuse of dominant position”?

(A) Limiting production or technical development
(B) Predatory pricing
(C) Discriminatory pricing
(D) All of these

11.

Under the Pakistan Companies Act, which of the following documents is not required to be filed with the registrar for the incorporation of a company?

(A) Memorandum of association
(B) Declaration of compliance
(C) Certificate of share capital
(D) All of these

12.

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2006, the power to impose penalties for violations rests with:

(A) Consumer Court
(B) District Coordination Officer
(C) Provincial Assembly
(D) None of these

13.

Under which condition does a buyer have the right to reject goods under the Sale of Goods Act?

(A) If the goods are slightly different in shade but still usable.
(B) If the seller delivers goods that do not conform to the contract description (breach of condition).
(C) If the buyer changes their mind after the sale
(D) All of these

14.

The Electronic Transactions Ordinance, 2002 primarily aims to:

(A) Legalize electronic documents and records
(B) Recognize electronic signatures
(C) Facilitate e-commerce growth in Pakistan
(D) All of these

15.

The primary purpose of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 2007 is to:

(A) Regulate electronic banking transactions
(B) Protect consumers from unauthorized electronic transfers
(C) Establish rights and liabilities of financial institutions
(D) All of these

16.

Which of the following remedies can a consumer seek under the Consumer Protection Act, 2006?

(A) Replacement or repair of defective goods
(B) Refund of the price paid
(C) Compensation for damages
(D) All of these

17.

In Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. , the court held that:

(A) An advertisement is never an offer
(B) A general offer can be accepted by anyone who fulfills its conditions
(C) There was no valid acceptance in this case
(D) None of these

18.

A consumer must notify the financial institution of an unauthorized electronic fund transfer within:

(A) 1 day
(B) 7 days
(C) 30 days
(D) None of these

19.

Which of the following is considered a valid electronic signature under the Electronic Transactions Ordinance, 2002?

(A) Any electronic method used to authenticate a document
(B) A digital signature generated through cryptographic means
(C) A secure electronic signature verified by a certificate
(D) All of these

20.

Which of the following is not a deceptive marketing practice under the Competition Act 2010?

(A) False or misleading advertising
(B) Fraudulent use of another firm's trademark
(C) Comparative advertising that is truthful and verifiable
(D) None of these

 

PART-II

 

NOTE:

(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.

(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. ALL questions carry EQUAL marks.

(iii) All the parts (if any) of each Question must be attempted at one place instead of at different places.

(iv) Write Q. No. in the Answer Book in accordance with Q. No. in the Q. Paper.

(v) No Page/Space be left blank between the answers. All the blank pages of Answer Book must be crossed.

(vi) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the question will not be considered.

 

Q. No. 2.

Explain the rights of an unpaid seller under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.

In your answer, discuss the seller's rights in relation to the goods, the buyer, and the contract, including the right of lien, stoppage in transit, and right of resale.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

Critically analyze the statutory functions and enforcement powers of the Competition Commission of Pakistan under the Competition Act, 2010.

How effectively has the Competition Commission of Pakistan addressed anti-competitive practices such as cartelization, abuse of dominant position, and deceptive marketing in Pakistan’s market economy?

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Critically examine the procedure prescribed under the Arbitration Act, 1940 for setting aside an arbitral award.

Explain the role of the court, limitation requirements, notice and evidence procedures, and the distinction between remitting an award and setting it aside.

Evaluate whether the procedure ensures fairness and judicial oversight.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Critically examine the doctrine of ultra vires in relation to the Memorandum of Association.

How does the Memorandum of Association define the scope of a company’s powers, and what are the consequences of acts beyond the powers specified in the Memorandum of Association?

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Critically examine the presumptions provided under the Electronic Transactions Ordinance, 2002 regarding the authenticity and integrity of electronic records and signatures.

Analyze how these presumptions facilitate the reliability of electronic transactions and the evidentiary challenges that may arise in court.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

Critically examine the statutory and contractual rights of partners under the Partnership Act, 1932, with special reference to participation in management, remuneration, indemnity, and interest on capital.

Evaluate how these rights operate alongside the corresponding duties imposed on partners.

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

Critically analyse the admissibility of electronic and computer-generated evidence under the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984.

How does the judgment in Alamgir Khalid Chughtai vs State (PLD 2009 Lahore 254) contribute to the evolving jurisprudence on digital evidence in Pakistan?

(20)

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Q.1.

(i) Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the OMR Answer Sheet. (20 × 1 = 20)

(ii) Answers given anywhere else, other than OMR Answer Sheet, will not be considered.

 

1.

According to the Consumer Protection Act, 2006, a consumer court has the authority to:

(A) Award monetary compensation to the complainant.
(B) Order imprisonment of business owners found guilty.
(C) Direct the government to regulate product prices.
(D) Provide tax exemptions to businesses that comply with the law.

2.

Under the Contract Act, 1872, a contract entered into by a minor is:

(A) Voidable
(B) Valid
(C) Void
(D) Enforceable at the discretion of the minor

3.

Which of the following is a primary function of the Provincial Consumer Protection Councils under the Consumer Protection Act, 2006?

(A) To regulate market prices across provinces.
(B) To promote consumer rights and welfare at the provincial level.
(C) To punish business entities involved in unfair trade practices.
(D) To ensure that all businesses in the province are registered.

4.

Under the Arbitration Act, 1940, an arbitral award can be set aside by the court only if:

(A) It is found to be unfair
(B) The arbitrator has acted outside the scope of his authority
(C) The parties request it
(D) It is not in writing

5.

Under the Competition Act, 2010, what is the maximum fine that the Competition Commission can impose on a company for a violation of the Act?

(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 1,000,000
(C) 10% of the annual turnover
(D) 5% of the annual turnover

6.

In the case of Coggs v. Bernard (1703), the main legal principle established was:

(A) The enforceability of verbal agreements
(B) The concept of gratuitous bailment and liability for negligence
(C) The validity of contracts made under duress
(D) The rules for property transfer without consideration

7.

In the case of Curie v. Misa (1875), the Court primarily dealt with the concept of:

(A) The enforceability of contracts involving real property
(B) The definition of consideration in contract law
(C) The legality of contracts made under coercion
(D) The validity of oral agreements in commercial transactions

8.

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which of the following statements about a holder in due course is true?

(A) A holder in due course can acquire the instrument free from all defects of title.
(B) A holder in due course must always know the previous holder.
(C) A holder in due course is not entitled to receive payment for the instrument.
(D) A holder in due course cannot negotiate the instrument further.

9.

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, if a cheque is dishonored due to insufficient funds, the drawer can be liable for:

(A) Only the face value of the cheque
(B) The face value of the cheque plus any additional bank charges
(C) The entire loan amount in case of a loan-backed cheque
(D) Criminal liability under the Act, depending on intent

10.

Under the Electronic Transactions Ordinance 2002, a digital signature is required to be:

(A) Created using a government-approved certificate authority
(B) Typed by the person signing the document
(C) Verified by a notary public
(D) Printed and signed in ink by the signer

11.

Which of the following is not covered under the Electronic Transactions Ordinance 2002?

(A) E-commerce contracts
(B) Digital signatures and authentication
(C) Intellectual property rights in digital formats
(D) Privacy of communication in electronic records

12.

Under the Arbitration Act, 1940, if a party fails to comply with an arbitral award, the other party can apply to the court for:

(A) Imprisonment of the non-compliant party
(B) Enforcement of the award as a decree of the court
(C) Modification of the award
(D) Suspension of the arbitration proceedings

13.

Which section of the Arbitration Act, 1940 deals with the refusal of the court to set aside an arbitral award?

(A) 16
(B) 30
(C) 34
(D) Section 35

14.

Under the Electronic Fund Transfer Act 2007, if a consumer disputes an electronic transaction, the bank is required to:

(A) Immediately refund the disputed amount
(B) Investigate the matter within a specified time frame
(C) Transfer the dispute to law enforcement authorities
(D) Only notify the customer of the transaction dispute

15.

Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, which of the following is not a requirement for a contract of sale to be legally valid?

(A) There must be a transfer of ownership in goods
(B) The contract must involve a sale of tangible goods
(C) The seller must guarantee a specific quality of goods
(D) The contract must involve a price that can be determined

16.

According to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, if the goods are sold by description, the goods must:

(A) Conform to the description provided
(B) Be physically inspected by the buyer
(C) Be delivered within 30 days
(D) Match the price stated in the contract

17.

Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the implied condition of title in a sale contract means that:

(A) The buyer must pay the price at the time of delivery
(B) The seller has the right to sell the goods
(C) The buyer must inspect the goods before taking possession
(D) The seller must provide a warranty for the goods

18.

Which of the following is not an essential requirement for a valid promissory note under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) It must be in writing.
(B) It must contain an unconditional promise to pay.
(C) It must be signed by the payee.
(D) It must specify a definite amount of money.

19.

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill of exchange can be accepted by:

(A) The drawee (the person to whom the bill is directed)
(B) The holder of the bill
(C) The payee
(D) Any third party unrelated to the bill

20.

Which section of the Contract Act, 1872, deals with the contract of "performance of conditions precedent"?

(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 55
(D) 12

 

PART-II

 

NOTE:

(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.

(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. ALL questions carry EQUAL marks.

(iii) All the parts (if any) of each Question must be attempted at one place instead of at different places.

(iv) Write Q. No. in the Answer Book in accordance with Q. No. in the Q. Paper.

(v) No Page/Space be left blank between the answers. All the blank pages of Answer Book must be crossed.

(vi) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the question will not be considered.

 

Q. No. 2.

Critically analyze the remedies available for the breach of contract under the Contract Act, 1872.

In your analysis, discuss the role of compensatory damages, the limits of specific performance and the challenges faced in enforcing contracts in Pakistan's legal and business environment.

How does the principle of anticipatory breach apply in Pakistan, and what challenges might arise in proving such a breach in the local courts?

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

Critically analyze the concept of implied authority of a partner and the doctrine of holding out under the Partnership Act, 1932.

In your analysis, discuss how the implied authority of a partner to bind the firm in transactions, even those beyond the express agreement, impacts the liability of partners in a partnership.

How does the doctrine of holding out protect third parties, and what are the potential challenges in applying this doctrine in modern business practices?

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Critically analyze the special rules of evidence under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, with particular reference to the presumption of validity and the burden of proof in cases involving negotiable instruments like promissory notes and cheques.

How do these provisions impact the rights of the drawer, holder, and endorser in cases of dishonor or dispute?

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Critically analyze the provisions related to the transfer of shares under the Companies Act, 2017, particularly focusing on the restrictions and procedures for the transfer of shares in private companies.

How do the provisions balance the interests of the company, the shareholders, and third parties in ensuring that share transfers are both fair and efficient?

Evaluate the challenges faced by shareholders in the transfer process, especially in light of the legal requirements for board approval and the pre-emption rights of existing shareholders.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Critically analyze the legal framework governing contracts between consumers and providers under the Consumer Protection Act, 2006.

How does the Act ensure that consumer rights are protected in contracts, particularly with regard to the provisions on misrepresentation, defective goods, and unfair trade practices?

Evaluate the effectiveness of the Act in addressing power imbalances between consumers and providers, especially in cases of standard form contracts where consumers have limited bargaining power.

Does the Act provide adequate remedies for consumers in case of breach of contract, and how do these provisions influence the behavior of businesses in terms of compliance and consumer satisfaction?

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

"With the rise of digital communication and e-commerce, the Electronic Transactions Ordinance 2002 has played a crucial role in shaping the legal landscape of electronic contracts and digital signatures in Pakistan."

Discuss the key provisions of the Electronic Transactions Ordinance 2002, focusing on the legal recognition of electronic records and signatures, as well as the role of certification authorities.

Critically evaluate the effectiveness of this Ordinance in addressing issues of security, authenticity, and reliability in digital transactions.

What challenges remain in its enforcement, particularly in the context of Pakistan's evolving digital economy?

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

"The Competition Act 2010 seeks to promote fair competition in Pakistan by prohibiting and regulating abusive marketing practices that can distort market dynamics and harm consumer welfare."

Discuss the provisions related to the prohibition of deceptive marketing practices and abuse of marketing practices under the Competition Act 2010.

Critically evaluate the role of the Competition Commission of Pakistan (CCP) in enforcing these provisions and ensuring compliance.

What are the challenges in curbing deceptive marketing practices in Pakistan, and how might regulatory enforcement be improved to promote fair competition and protect consumers in both traditional and digital markets?

(20)

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Q.1.

(i) Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the OMR Answer Sheet. (20 × 1 = 20)

(ii) Answers given anywhere else, other than OMR Answer Sheet, will not be considered.

 

1.

A kind of resolution that is required to alter the capital clause of the Memorandum of Association is known as:

(A) Equity Resolution
(B) Ordinary Resolution
(C) Special Resolution
(D) Shareholders’ Resolution with notice

2.

A minor partner is liable to the third party:

(A) Personally
(B) Up to his share
(C) ¾ of the actual loss
(D) For nothing

3.

Compensation granted for indirect and remote losses is known as:

(A) Compensatory Damages
(B) Punitive Damages
(C) Special Damages
(D) Vindictive Damages

4.

In the light of the Contract Act ______________ is not a valid consideration.

(A) Illusory Consideration
(B) Past Consideration
(C) Present Consideration
(D) All of these

5.

An agreement carrying inadequate consideration is:

(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these

6.

A certificate of commencement of business is required for:

(A) Unlisted public company
(B) Listed public company
(C) Registered public company
(D) All of these

7.

In a limited company _______________ stands in a fiduciary relationship.

(A) Shareholders
(B) Promoters
(C) Creditors
(D) None of these

8.

An equity capital might be:

(A) Nominal capital
(B) Unissued capital
(C) Paid up capital
(D) All of these

9.

Members holding not less than _________ percent of the issued share capital of a company can make an application to the court against oppression.

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 33
(D) None of these

10.

A class action is an action by:

(A) A plaintiff against multiple defendants
(B) By multiple plaintiffs against a defendant
(C) By shareholder against company
(D) All of these

11.

While conducting commercial legal research the initial step is to:

(A) Determine the relevant jurisdiction
(B) Find the relevant case law
(C) Identify the relevant legal issue
(D) All of these

12.

__________ purchases shares of a public company and arranges for their sale to the general public.

(A) Contributory
(B) Underwriter
(C) Promoter
(D) None of these

13.

When the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time the contract is known as:

(A) Sale
(B) Provisional sale
(C) Conditional sale
(D) An agreement to sell

14.

A stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract of sale of goods is called:

(A) Guarantee
(B) Warranty
(C) A condition
(D) A stipulation

15.

In case of dishonor of a negotiable instrument notice is required to be given to:

(A) Drawer
(B) All endorsers
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

16.

Questions arising at the meeting of the Competition Commission shall be determined by the ___________ of the members present.

(A) Vote of majority
(B) Vote of special majority
(C) Consensus
(D) None of these

17.

In Payment Systems and Electronic Fund Transfers Act, 2007 electronic fund transfer means any transfer of funds which is initiated through:

(A) Electronic Terminal
(B) Telephonic instrument
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

18.

A negotiable instrument is freely transferable by endorsement if it is ____________ instrument.

(A) Order
(B) Bearer
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

19.

Doctrine that every person dealing with the company is presumed to have read and understood the Memorandum and Articles of Association is known as:

(A) Caveat emptor
(B) Indoor management
(C) Constructive notice
(D) None of these

20.

In a contract of guarantee the person for whom the guarantee is given is called:

(A) Creditor
(B) Principle debtor
(C) Surety
(D) None of these

 

PART-II

 

NOTE:

(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.

(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. ALL questions carry EQUAL marks.

(iii) All the parts (if any) of each Question must be attempted at one place instead of at different places.

(iv) Write Q. No. in the Answer Book in accordance with Q. No. in the Q. Paper.

(v) No Page/Space be left blank between the answers. All the blank pages of Answer Book must be crossed.

(vi) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the question will not be considered.

 

Q. No. 2.

Describe the relationship if any, between Separate Legal personality and Limited Liability of corporate form of business.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

What is meant by charge?

Explain the legal nature and significance of floating charge in company law.

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

In the presence of majority rule how well the minority shareholders are protected in the Companies Act 2017?

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

In the light of Competition Act 2010 discuss six most common practices in Pakistani markets that prevent, restrict, reduce and distort competition through abuse of dominant position.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Discuss the basic legal features of partnership Agreement and rights of partner by estoppel in the light of Partnership Act.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

Explain the meaning and legal function of negotiable instruments in the light of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881.

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

Write notes on any two of the following:

(a) Cumulative voting

(b) Legal status of promotors

(c) Doctrine of indoor management?

(10 each)

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Who is an Unpaid Seller?

What are his rights against the Goods, as provided by the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

What ideology lays behind the registration of ‘Memorandum of Association’ and ‘Articles of Association’ as distinctive documents?

How they differ from each other?

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Discuss the powers of Court, as far as they are related to the modification and rescission of award granted by the arbitrator, under The Arbitration Act, 1940.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

What considerations have been provided by the Electronic Transactions Ordinance, for the purpose of recognition and appraisal of electronic document?

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

What is Competition Law?

Why it is needed?

Describe the composition, powers and functions of Competition Commission of Pakistan.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

In case of unauthorized electronic fund transfer by the consumer, how his liability would be determined?

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

Write short notes on the following concepts of Contract Act, 1872.

(5 each)

a) Contract of Indemnity.

b) Contract of Guarantee.

c) Contract of Bailment.

d) Contract of Agency.

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Classify and discuss contracts into the following four categories:

According to Enforceability
According to Formation
According to Performance
According to Parties

Explain with examples.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

Who is an unpaid seller?

What are the rights of an unpaid seller against the goods?

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Discuss different types of partnership.

What are the different modes of determining the existence of a partnership?

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Critically analyze the Competition Commission of Pakistan as an institution.

Discuss in detail the establishment, functions, and powers of the Competition Commission of Pakistan.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

What are the functions of the Certification Council under the Electronic Transaction Ordinance, 2002?

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

Discuss unfair practices according to the Consumer Protection Act, 2006, and the role of the Consumer Protection Council.

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

Discuss different types of companies.

How a company is wound-up?

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Plaintiff offered to purchase a lodge owned by defendants for Rs. 60,000/-. He wrote the defendant’s agent asking whether his offer had been accepted and saying that he was prepared to accept any higher price if found reasonable.

The Agent replied, “Won’t accept less than rupees one hundred thousand.”

The Plaintiff accepted this and subsequently brought a suit for specific performance.

Was a Contract concluded between the parties? Give reasons.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

How will one differentiate between a void agreement and an unlawful agreement?

Explain the agreements which have been expressly declared as void.

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

What are ‘Conditions and Warranties’?

Differentiate between the two and explain the ‘Implied Conditions’ in a Contract of Sale.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Companies hold various kinds of meetings to regulate their business.

Explain those meetings with special reference to the ‘Statutory Meeting’ and the ‘Statutory Report’.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Partnership is a relation between the persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or someone acting on behalf of others.

In view of this statement, explain as to what are the ingredients of a partnership.

What is the test required to determine the existence of a partnership?

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

What is an ‘Award’?

Describe fully the grounds for setting aside an award.

Does a court have the power to set aside an award suo motu?

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

What is meant by ‘Merger’ under the law relating to competition in Pakistan?

What is the procedure for approval of merger?

Discuss the powers of the Competition Commission for second phase review.

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Explain the term consideration and state the exceptions to the rule:

“No consideration, no contract”?

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

What do you understand by the rule “caveat emptor”?

Are there any exceptions to this rule?

Does this rule apply in Pakistan today?

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

What do you mean by implied authority of partner?

What are the limitations on authority of partner?

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Why does the State Bank of Pakistan Act, 1956 maintain that only State Bank can lawfully issue bearer notes and bills of exchange payable on demand?

What does this tell you about the nature of the paper currency that we use?

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

What do you understand by fixed and floating charges with reference to company law?

Draw a distinction between the two types.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

What changes have been brought about in the rules of the memorandum of association of a company by the new law of 2017?

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

What is the meaning of “services for consideration” in the consumer law and does it include the services of a doctor or a lawyer?

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

What do you know about the issuance of prospectus of a company?

What matters are to be stated in it and what is the civil and criminal liability for mis-statement in prospectus?

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

Elaborate the conditions and procedures for the registration of mortgages and charges under company law.

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

What do you know about the meetings and proceedings of company?

Explain in detail.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

What is the difference between contract and agreement?

Explain in detail the performance of reciprocal promises.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Define arbitration agreement and elaborate what are the powers of court in appointing and removing arbitrator(s) as well as to modify and remit the award?

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

Define negotiable instrument and also explain the special rules of evidence under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881.

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

What do you know about the composition and functions of Competition Commission of Pakistan under the Competition Commission Act, 2010?

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Discuss the circumstances in which the veil of incorporation may be pierced in Pakistan, referring to the relevant case law and statutory provisions.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

Describe the legal rules and limitations for altering the Memorandum and Articles of Association of a company.

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Describe the features of partnership and the legal status of a minor partner in a partnership.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

Discuss the creation and legal effects of agency relationship in law.

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Distinguish negotiable instruments by statute and explain the liability of parties to these instruments.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

Discuss the nature and scope of Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2010 regarding prohibited agreements.

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

In the presence of an arbitration agreement, discuss the legal aspects of the power of the judicial authority to stay legal proceedings under the Arbitration Act, 1940.

(20)

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Q. No. 2.

Define Endorsement.

Explain its kinds.

(20)

 

Q. No. 3.

What do you understand by partnership?

Elaborate the points of difference between partnership and company.

(20)

 

Q. No. 4.

Define Contract.

Explain the contracts which need not to be performed.

(20)

 

Q. No. 5.

What do you understand by implied authority of a partner as an agent of the firm?

Are there any acts which he cannot do under his implied authority?

(20)

 

Q. No. 6.

Discuss the composition and functions of Competition Commission of Pakistan under the Competition Commission Act, 2010.

(20)

 

Q. No. 7.

“None can transfer a better title like than he himself has”.

Are there any exceptions to this rule?

(20)

 

Q. No. 8.

Explain the terms and conditions of Transfers under the Electronic Fund Transfer Act 2007.

What disclosures are required under such transfer?

(20)

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